I don't know how you did that.... It took me two hours to have grok finally admit that the jews attacking gaza is no different than the jews being attacked by hadrian during the great revolt. My question was this : Grok: If the jews were oppressed by the romans to a point they revolted and were slaughtered and they claim to be the victims, then how when they oppressed the Palestinians and the Palestinians revolted and they responded with overwhelming force just like Hadrian, how can they call themselves the victims in both circumstances. Groks response was basically jews are special circumstance because they are always the victim. It finally came around for me, but since it remembers everything I write perhaps one of you can re ask the question and see what it tells you and report back.... It said it would correct its bias....
I asked it your question and it gave a long-winded response about how I'm oversimplifying a complex situation and blah blah blah
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