I'm more open than most to the idea that the country was turned into some sort of corporation some time in the past, but this is hardly proof of that.
This part of the legal code is saying that if you get involved in court with a Federal owned corporation, it will be listed as "United States" as the plaintiff/defendant, which ultimately means very little.
To give an analogy, I could do business as "Kikeslayer Emporium R' Us" and then any time you'd sue me or the corporation or vice versa have that listed as the defendant/plaintiff (depending on the case), but that doesn't mean "I, the person owning said corporation, AM one", does it?
(post is archived)