Question: How is there a Separation of Powers in the USA (I know this story is from Canada but Pfizer has the same immunity from lawsuits here in the USA) if the Executive Branch or the Legislative Branch can ban you from filing "a petition of your grievances" with the Judiciary Branch?
It seems like it would be a violation of the Constitutional separation of powers for there to be any cases where it is preemptively ruled that we are not allowed to sue someone for causing us damages. Why would the SCOTUS allow such rules to be put into place, and why would the lower courts abide by it at all? It's overreach by the other branches of government.
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