Lmao. No. The term “good faith” ONLY exists to legally invalidate agreements, deals, or offers made in bad faith. Of course it has to be proven, but being difficult to prove does not turn bad faith into good faith. Here’s the definition of good faith from the American bar association, with a link so you can’t even pretend to have a reason not to have read this comment: >>>“Good faith” has generally been defined as honesty in a person's conduct during the agreement. >>>In general, the duty of good faith and fair dealing means, for example, that parties cannot evade the spirit of the bargain, lack diligence, perform incorrectly on purpose, or abuse their power when specifying the terms of a contract https://www.americanbar.org/groups/litigation/committees/business-torts-unfair-competition/practice/2016/duty-of-good-faith-fair-dealing/ Making a fake loan contract in order to avoid gift taxes does not indicate honesty in your conduct during the agreement, certainly includes the intention to perform incorrectly on purpose, and arguably evades the spirit of the deal and abuses your power to specify terms of the contract >I don't see a single link so I don't need to read your reply. “I can’t explain why a crime only becomes a crime if someone turns me in so I’m going to pretend I didn’t read that.” Literally asked you for your opinion on a hypothetical scenario in the first sentence and you’re going to act like you expect sources. To give your opinion. On a fake scenario. 🤦🏻‍♂️