if they spread it amongst themselves, then why did poland completely avoid it?
the black plague arrived around 1350, just after a lot of europe had cracked down on the jews, forcing them to flee to poland. it hit hardest in places like venice, which had come to dominate trade. after this period, you start to detect jewish influence or 'tolerance' trend in these merchant districts. almost as if the competition had been killed off.
Because Poland was considered a rural nation. Poland's bigger cities suffered the plague as much as other nations.
No, they didn't. Why lie?...
So they were rural, with some big cities? Guess what dumb fuck, so was every other nation.
I read the post and it doesnt make sense the jews wouldnt want to poison Poles too. But maybe it makes sense on the other points. Will check out more.
(post is archived)