You have an interesting interpretation of the Bible. It's interesting when you look at the literal translation of the word Jesus the Christ uses for "Israel" in Matt 15:24. The word "Israhl" is used to describe the chosen people of God. Either literal descendants of Israel (Jacob) or the "elect" or "chosen" children of God. Notice in Revelation 7:9 > Revelation 7:9 , NIV: "After this I looked, and there before me was a great multitude that no one could count, from every nation, tribe, people and language, standing before the throne and before the Lamb. They were wearing white robes and were holding palm branches in their hands." Interesting how the chosen people of God are from all nations, languages. Not specifically one race or group of people, but a multitude from all nations and tribes. Hence, the people "of Israel" that Jesus is describing isn't some group of people who call themselves jews. It's the chosen people of God. The Israeltes broke the covenant God made with them. Hence why God sent his son Jesus to bring about the new covenant. *Prophecy of Christ's coming* > Jeremiah 31:31-34. "Behold, the days come, saith the LORD, that I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel, and with the house of Judah; not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day that I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt; forasmuch as they broke My covenant, although I was a lord over them, saith the LORD. But this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, saith the LORD, I will put My law in their inward parts, and in their heart will I write it; and I will be their God, and they shall be My people ... *Jesus reaffirming the new covenant.* > Luke 22:20. “This cup is the new covenant in my blood, which is poured out for you ... To recap: 1) New covenant is not made with the specific geneological descendants of Jacob, 2) the "house of Israel" is the elect, God's chosen, the children of the new covenant. You make some intriguing points. Much of the basis for them is misinterpretation. Like when you think Jesus is calling non-jews "dogs." Is he calling non-jews "dogs", or is he describing sinners in general? If you consider the context of the time this event occurred, you'll note that the "jews" saw themselves as far superior to the "gentiles." Thus, this woman was more than aware of the breach in decorum. A **gentile** speaking to a **jew** and a Rabbi at that?! Unheard of. So Jesus poses her the question, and she responds with a demonstration of her faith. My main gripe with your position is that, if you actually read the Bible in context, you'll realize it has nothing nice to say about jews. In fact, it is implied that the people who inhabit the land of Israel today are the children of the devil. This group is under a blood curse, and they serve lies (who is the master of lies but the devil himself). I appreciate your thorough reply.